UPSC Success Logo
UPSC Success Logo

1. Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural and Educational Rights granted? (Railways 1995)
(a) Article 29 and 31
(b) Article 29 and 32
(c) Article 29 and 30
(d) Article 30 and 31
Ans: (c)
2. Which of the following is not specifically mentioned in Article 19 of the Constitution?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(c) Freedom
(d) Freedom of the press
Ans: (d)
3. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under:
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Legal Rights
(c) Constitutional Rights
(d) Natural Rights
Ans: (a)
4. If an Indian citizen is denied a public office because of his religion, which of the following Fundamental Rights is denied to him? (Asstt Grade 1994)
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion
(d) Right against Exploitation
Ans: (b)
5. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are suspended during emergency caused by:
(a) war or external aggression
(b) failure of constitutional machinery of a State
(c) internal armed rebellion
(d) financial crisis
Ans: (a)
6. The theory of Fundamental Rights implies: (NDA 1992)
(a) sovereignty of the people
(b) equality of opportunity for all
(c) limited government
(d) equality of all before law
Ans: (c)
7. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under: (IAS 1995)
(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) the Right against Exploitation
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) the Right to Equality
Ans: (d)
8. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented:
(a) in the Supreme Court only
(b) in the High Court only
(c) either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court
(d) first in the Supreme Court and then in the High Court
Ans: (c)
9. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy? (IAS 2008)
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
10. Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of:
(a) religion
(b) caste
(c) population
(d) colour
Ans: (a)
11. The Fundamental individual are:
(a) limited to the State action only
(b) meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons
(c) meant to protect persons against the police action
(d) All of the above are correct
Ans: (d)
12. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the law to:
(a) all persons living within the territory of India
(b) all Indian citizens living in India
(c) all persons domiciled in India
(d) all persons natural as well as artificial
Ans: (a)
13. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States? (IAS 2008)
(a) Third
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Ninth
Ans: (b)
14. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to:
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 15(4)
Ans: (c)
15. Which one is not correctly matched?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression – Include freedom of press
(b) Freedom of conscience – Include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs
(c) Right to Personal liberty – Include right to carry on any trade or business
(d) Right to Equality – Include principles of natural justice
Ans: (c)
16. As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the fundamental rights· granted under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are:
(a) not available at all
(b) available to armed forces but not to other forces
(c) available only at the discretion of the chief of army staff
(d) available only according to law made by Parliament
Ans: (d)
17. Right to education is a fundamental right emanating from right to :
(a) freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 (1) (a)
(b) culture and education under Articles 29 and 30
(c) life and personal liberty under Article 21
(d) equality before law and equal protection of law under Article 14
Ans: (c)
18. The Constitution names our country as :
(a) Bharat
(b) India, that is Bharat
(c) Hindustan
(d) Aryavarta
Ans: (b)
19. The Constitution provides that Hindi shall be:
(a) the national language of India
(b) the language of communication between the State Governments
(c) the official language of the Union of India
(d) the language of communication between the Union Government and the State Governments
Ans: (c)
20. What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any factory or mine? (Delhi Police 1994)
(a) 12 years
(b) 14 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 18 years
Ans: (b)
21. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?
(a) Birth
(b) Acquiring property
(c) Descent
(d) Naturalisation
Ans: (b)
22. Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian citizenship? (Asstt Grade 1992)
(a) Parliament
(b) State Legislatures
(c) President
(d) Attorney General
Ans: (a)
23. Which of the following statements regarding the acquisition of Indian citizenship is correct?
(a) If citizenship is to be acquired by registration, six months residence in India is essential.
(b) If citizenship is to be acquired by naturalisation the person concerned must have resided in India for 5 years.
(c) If born in India, only that person can acquire citizenship at least one of whose parents is an Indian.
(d) Rules regarding the citizenship of India shall not be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.
Ans: (c)
24. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship cannot be acquired by:
(a) children of the diplomatic personnel or alien enemies born in India on or after 26th January, 1950
(b) children born of Indian citizens abroad
(c) incorporation of territory not forming part of India at the commencement of the Constitution
(d) naturalization
Ans: (a)
25. Citizenship provisions are enshrined in the Constitution in :
(a) Part II
(b) Part II, Articles 5-11
(c) Part II, Articles 5-6
(d) Part I, Articles 5-11
Ans: (b)
26. Which of the following Articles describes about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens?
(a) Article 5
(b) Article 7
(c) Article 8
(d) Article 9
Ans: (d)
27. Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provisions is incorrect?
(a) He or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948
(c) Such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a citizen
(d) Such person has got married in India
Ans: (a)
28. Details on how citizenship may be acquired and terminated are enumerated in:
(a) Part II of the Constitution
(b) the Citizenship Act, 1955
(c) Schedule I of the Constitution
(d) various enactments by Parliament
Ans: (b)
29. Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated if:
1. a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country.
2. a person who has become a citizen through registration is sentenced to imprisonment for not less than 10 years within five years of his registration.
3. the Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud.
4. a person who is a citizen by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during war.
(a) I and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
30. A person can become a citizen of India even if born outside India if his/her:
(a) father is a citizen of India
(b) mother is a citizen of India
(c) father is a citizen of India at the time of the person’s birth
(d) father or mother is a citizen of India at the time of the person’s birth
Ans: (d)
31. To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been resident in India for ______ immediately before making an application:
(a) six months
(b) one year
(c) three years
(d) five years
Ans: (d)
32. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ‘The Heart and Soul of the Constitution’?
(a) Right of Freedom of Religion
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans: (d)
33. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?
(a) Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment
(b) Freedoms of movement, residence and profession
(c) Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex
(d) Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law
Ans: (d)
34. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? Subject List
(a) Stock Exchange State List
(b) Forest Concurrent List
(c) Insurance Union List
(d) Marriage and Divorce Concurrent List
Ans: (a)
35. On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court
(c) President
(d) State legislature
Ans: (b)
36. According to Article 23, the following are prohibited:
(a) traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery and bonded labour
(b) monopoly of trade
(c) sale of incenses
(d) visit to terrorist infected areas
Ans: (a)
37. Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to :s
(a) citizens and non-citizens
(b) natural persons as well as artificial persons
(c) citizen only
(d) all persons who have juristic personality
Ans: (a)
38. Which one of the following has been dropped from the list of personal freedoms enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution?
(a) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(b) Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property
(c) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country
(d) Freedom to carry on any profession, occupation; trade or business
Ans: (b)
39. Once the proclamation of emergency is made, the right of a citizen to move to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of his fundamental right is suspended by the:
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Ans: (b)
40. Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because they are:
(a) enshrined in Part III of the Constitution
(b) human rights
(c) transcendental rights
(d) part of bask structure of essential framework of the Constitution
Ans: (d)
41. Which of the following statements is/are not indicative of the difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
I. Directive Principles are aimed at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights are for protecting individuals from State encroachment.
II. Fundamental Rights are limitations on State action, while Directive Principles are positive instructions for the Government to work towards a just socioeconomic order.
III. Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution, but Directive Principles were added by the first Amendment.
IV. Fundamental Rights are amendable, but Directive Principles cannot be amended.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (c)
42. The enforcement of Directive Principles depends most on:
(a) the Courts
(b) an effective opposition in Parliament
(c) resources available to the Government
(d) public cooperation
Ans: (c)
43. In the Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform are found in :
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble
(c) Fundamental Futies
(d) Directive Principles
Ans: (c)
44. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were provided by:
(a) an amendment of the Constiution
(b) a judgement of the Supreme Court
(c) an order issued by the President
(d) a Legislation adopted by the Parliament
Ans: (a)
45. Which of the following is correct about the Fundamental Duties?
I. These are not enforceable.
II. They are primarily moral duties.
III. They are not related to any legal rights.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) I and II
Ans: (a)
46. The total number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution is:
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
Ans: (c)
47. Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV-A of the Constitution are:
(a) enforceable duties and Parliament can impose penalties or punishments for the non- compliance
(b) like Directive Principles that : are mandates to people
(c) like Fundamental Rights that are enforceable
(d) no more than meant to create psychological consciousness among the citizens and of education value
Ans: (d)
48. Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in accordance with the recommendations of:
(a) Santhanam Committee
(b) Sarkaria Committee
(c) Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Indira Gandhi Committee
Ans: (c)
49. Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is:
(a) Fundamental Right of every citizen
(b) Fundamental Duty of every citizen
(c) Directive Principle of State policy
(d) ordinary duty of every citizen
Ans: (b)
50. The Fundamental Duties: I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment.
I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment.
II. are incorporated in Part Ill-A.
III. are not justiciable.
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) III only
Ans: (d)
51. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right
1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.
3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property. (CDS 2008)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
52. Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties as listed in the Constitution?
I. To preserve the heritage of our composite culture.
II. To abide by the Constitution.
III. To strive for excellence in scientific research to win international fame.
IV. To render national service when called upon to do so.
(a) I, II and III
(b) l and II
(c) I, II and IV
(d) II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
53. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution with the idea of:
(a) giving more importance to the Fundamental Rights
(b) curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities
(c) preventing abuse of Fundamental Rights
(d) giving more power to the executive
Ans: (b)
54. The Constitution describes India as a :
(a) Federation of States
(b) Union of States
(c) Confederation of States
(d) Unitary State
Ans: (b)
55. The ‘Union of India’ consists of:
I. States
II. Union Territories
III. Acquired Territories
(a) l only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (a)
56. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ? (IAS 2006)
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public health
Ans: (a)
57. Consider the following statements:
1. A person who was born on 26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of  India by birth at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent.
2. A person who was born on 1st·July, 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2009]
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2009)
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Ans: (c)
58. Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct? (CDS 2011)
(a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and’ therefore universally guarantees education to all citizens of India
(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015
(c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world
(d) This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 Years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
Ans: (d)
59. Which is the competent body to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship? (SSC (10+2) 2010)
(a) Election Commission
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Parliament and Assemblies
Ans: (c)
60. In India the right to “freedom of speech and expression” is restricted on the grounds of
1. the sovereignty and integrity of India.
2. contempt of court.
3. friendly relation with foreign states.
4. protection of minorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2010]
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
61. Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quowarranto?
1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitution itself.
2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.
3. There has been a contravention of the constitution or a Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2012)
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
62. Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct? (CDS 2012)
(a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the freedom of Press
(b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B
(c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of the Constitution
(d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Articles 19 of the Constitution
Ans: (c)
63. Right to Information is (Asstt Commdt 2011)
(a) fundamental right
(b) legal right
(c) neither fundamental right nor legal right
(d) both fundamental right as well as legal Right
Ans: (a)
64. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties as contained in the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. They can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. They have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption.
3. They are applicable only to citizens of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (Asstt Commdt 2011)
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: (d)
65. Which one among the following pairs is no correctly matched? (Asstt Commdt 2011)
(a) Power of the Parliament : Creating a new state
(b) Power of state legislature : Altering the name of the state
(c) Equality before law : Guaranteed to both Indian citizens and noncitizens
(d) Equality of opportunity : Guaranteed to only Indian citizens
Ans: (b)
66. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India? (CDS 2011)
(a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country
(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms
(c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country
(d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans: (c)
67. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the ‘Right against Exploitation’ in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
2. Abolition of untouchability.
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2011)
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
68. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to (CDS 2011)
(a) lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels
(b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decentralized state
(c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government
(d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society
Ans: (a)
69. In which case did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the Fundamental Rights over the Directive Principles of State Policy? (CPO SI 2010)
(a) Golaknath Case
(b) Keshavananda Bharti Case
(c) Minerva Mills Case
(d) All the above cases
Ans: (a)
70. Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens? (BPSC 2011)
(a) Right to constitutional remedies
(b) Freedom to speech
(c) Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country
(d) Freedom to acquire property
Ans: (b)
71. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India? (BPSC 2011)
(a) Right to Information
(b) Right to Work
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Housing
Ans: (c)
72. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? (CSAT 2011)
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans: (a)
73. A government is federal or unitary on the basis of relations between the:
(a) three organs of government
(b) Centre and States
(c) Legislature and the Executive
(d) Constitution and the States
Ans: (b)
74. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The territory of the units of the Indian federation may be altered by Parliament by a simple majority.
2. The consent of a State Legislature is necessary before Parliament redistributes its territory.
3. The President’s recommendation is necessary for introducing in Parliament a Bill on redistributing territory of any State.
4. The President must receive the State’s opinion before recommending a Bill on altering the name of the State.
(a) I only
(b) I and II
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I and III
Ans: (d)
75. Regarding equality before the law, the Indian Constitution makes exceptions in the case of:
(a) the President or a Governor
(b) foreign sovereigns only
(c) the President only
(d) None
Ans: (a)
76. Censorship of the press:
(a) is prohibited by the Constitution
(b) has to be judged by the test of reasonableness
(c) is a restriction on the freedom of the press mentioned in Article 19
(d) is specified in Article 31 of the Constitution
Ans: (b)
77. Freedom of speech and expression are restricted in the Constitution on grounds of
I. defamation
II. contempt of court
III. protecting a scheduled tribe
IV. friendly relations with foreign states
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Ans: (d)
78. The right against exploitation prohibits children:
(a) below 14 years of age from employment in family businesses
(b) below 14 years of age from being employed in hazardous occupations
(c) below 14 years from working on family farms
(d) from doing all the above
Ans: (b)
79. Which of the following comes under Right to Equality?
1. Non-discrimination by State on grounds of religion or race.
2. Equal protection of the laws.
3. Equal pay for equal work.
4. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment under the State.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II and IV
Ans: (d)
80. Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President on the advice of the Council of Ministers
(d) None of these; the restrictions have already been included in the Constitution
Ans: (b)
81. The right to constitutional remedies in India is a vailable to :
(a) citizens of India only
(b) all persons in case of infringement of any fundamental right
(c) any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights conferred on all persons
(d) an aggrieved individual alone
Ans: (b)
82. Which of the following rights are available to Indian citizens as well as foreigners residing in Indian territory ?
I. Cultural and Educational Rights.
II. Right to Freedom of religion.
III. Right against discrimination by the State on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
IV. Right to personal liberty.
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
83. Which of the following factors do not Explain why the rights included in Part III of the Constitution are called ‘fundamental’ ?
I. They are equally available to citizens and aliens.
II. They are superior to ordinary law
III. They are fundamental for governing the country.
IV. They are not absolute.
(a) II and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) III and IV
Ans: (c)
84. The Fundamental Right to ____ has been deleted by the ___ Amendment Act.
(a) form associations; 44th
(b) property; 44th
(c) against exploitation; 42nd
(d) private property; 42nd
Ans: (b)
85. Which statement/s is/are not correct regarding the Fundamental Rights?
I. Some of these rights are not available to the Armed Forces.
II. They are automatically suspended when any emergency is proclaimed by the President.
III. The President alone can decide upon modifying their application to the Armed Forces.
IV. They cannot be amended as they form a basic feature of the Constitution
(a) I and II
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (b)
86. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’? (IAS 2004)
(a) Article 24
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 330
(d) Article 368
Ans: (a)
87. Match the following (IAS 2004)
Articles of the Constitution of India
1. Article 14
2. Article 15
3. Article 16
4. Article 17
Provision
1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India
3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden
4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
88. Consider the following statements:
1. The Article 20 of the Constitution of India lays down that no person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
2. The Article 21 of the Constitution of India states that no person can be convicted for any offence except for the violation of law in force at the time of the commission of the act charged as an offence.
Which of these statements is/are correct? (CDS 2004)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
89. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by :
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principle
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) Judicial Decision
Ans: (b)
90. Which Article of the Constitution envisages free and compulsory education for children upto the age of 14 years? (Railways 1993)
(a) Article 45
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 29
(d) Article 32
Ans: (a)
91. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Part III
(b) Part IV
(c) Part V
(d) Part II
Ans: (b)
92. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy? (CBI 1993)
(a) To raise the level of nutrition
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To promote economic interests of weaker sections
(d) To separate the Judiciary from the Executive
Ans: (b)
93. Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Uniform civil code for all citizens
(c) Separation of Judiciary from Executive
(d) Promotion of cottage industries
Ans: (d)
94. Which of the following cannot be termed ‘Gandhian’ among the Directive Principles?
(a) Prevention of cow slaughter
(b) Promotion of cottage industries
(c) Establishment of village panchayats
(d) Uniform civil code for the country
Ans: (d)
95. Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part IV?
I. Equal pay for equal work.
II. Uniform civil code.
III. Small family norm
IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level.
(a) I, II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (b)
96. Which of the following were added to the Directive Principles by amendments to the Constitution?
I. To protect and improve the environment and safeguard wild life.
II. Right of workers to participate in management of industries.
III. Right to work
IV. To protect and maintain places of historic interest.
(a) I and III
(b) II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I and II
Ans: (d)
97. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India? (IAS 2004)
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of power between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the language listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Ans: (d)
98. The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution:
(a) contains provrsions relating to elections to Panchayats
(b) contains subjects over which Municipalities may have control
(c) contains recommendations relating to establishment of State Finance Commission
(d) was added by the 73rd Amendment Act
Ans: (b)
99. The Ninth Schedule was added by the ______ Amendment.
(a) First
(b) Ninth
(c) Thirty-fifth
(d) Thirty-sixth
Ans: (a)
100. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the: (Asstt Comm 2008)
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
Ans: (b)
101. Match the following:
A. Xth Schedule 1: Provision as to the disqualifications on the grounds of defection
B. VIIIth Schedule 2. Union, State and Concurrent Lists
C. VIIth Schedule 3. Languages
D. Vlth Schedule 4. Related to tribal areas
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (c)
102. Which language is not recognized in the 8th Schedule though it is an official language of a State?
(a) English
(b) Sindhi
(c) Sanskrit
(d) Kashmiri
Ans: (a)
103. Consider the following statements:
1. There are twelve Fundamental Duties laid down in the Constitution of India for every citizen of India.
2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for direct enforcement of the Fundamental Duties.
3. One of the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India is to cast his/her vote in general or State elections so as to maintain a vibrant democracy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2005)
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
104. In which one of the following does the subject of Co-operative Societies fall ? (CDS 2005)
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers Government
Ans: (c)
105. With what subject do the Articles 5 to 8 of the Constitution of India deal? (CDS 2005)
(a) Details of Indian Union and its territory
(b) Citizenship
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Union Executive
Ans: (b)
 

Leave a comment

Your email address will not be published.