Amendment of the Constitution (Questions & Answers)

Amendment of the Constitution (Questions & Answers) MCQs

1. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution can be amended only if (a) they are passed by a majority of total – membership of each House of Parliament and not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House of Parliament, and (b) are ratified by the legislatures of one-half of the States? (IAS 1995)
1. Method of election of President.
2. Provisions regarding the High Court.
3. Abolition of Legislative Council in any State.
4. Qualifications for Indian citizenship
5. Representation of States in Parliament.
(a) I, III, IV and V
(b) II, III and V
(c) I, II and V
(d) I, II, III, IV and V
Ans: (c)
2. Which of the following Amendments would need State ratification?
1. Provisions affecting President’s election.
2. Provisions affecting the Union Judiciary.
3. Amendment procedure.
4. Reservation of seats for SC/ST in Parliament.
(a) I, II and IV
(b) III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
3. Regarding Constitutional Amendments
1. the Provision of joint sitting is not available.
2. they become operative from the date both Houses have passed the Bills.
3. the President’s assent to a Constitutional Amendment is obligatory.
4. Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution according to the procedure laid down in Article 368.
(a) I and III
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (c)
4. The Constitution of India does not mention the post of:
(a) the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(b) the Deputy Prime Minister
(c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies
Ans: (b)
5. Which Amendment of the Constitution gave priority to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 39th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 40th Amendment
Ans: (c)
6. A major portion of the Constitution:
(a) can be amended by simple majority
(b) can be amended by two-thirds majority
(c) can be amended only with State ratification
(d) cannot be amended
Ans: (b)
7. If India decides to have a Presidential form of government, the first and foremost Amendment has to be made affecting the:
(a) system of judiciary
(b) composition of Parliament
(c) Executive-Legislature relationship
(d) provisions pertaining to Fundamental Rights
Ans: (c)
8. Which Amendment restored the power of judicial review to the Supreme Court and High Courts after it was curtailed by the 42nd Amendment?
(a) 42nd
(b) 43rd
(c) 44th
(d) 56th
Ans: (b)
9. Which one of the following statements is/are correct?
I. The committee on the status of women in India (NSW/) recommended the setting up of a National Commission for Women.
II. The first Chairperson of the National Commission for Women was Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik.
III. The main task of the Commission is to study and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and legal safeguards provided for women.
Select the correct answer using the code given below (CDS 2009)
(a) I, II and III
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) I and III
Ans: (a)
10. Which of the following cannot be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislative procedure ?
(a) Acquistion and termination of citizenship
(b) Privileges of the Parliament
(c) Composition of State Legislative Councils
(d) Representation of States in the Parliament
Ans: (d)
11. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable restriction of the ‘right to freedom’? (CDS 2009)
(a) When the State disallows a candidate from securing votes in the name of religion
(b) When the State disallows citizens from forming a club out of State funds that denies access to women
(c) When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.
(d) AII of the above
Ans: (c)
12. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments banned the floor crossing in Parliament? (UGC 1989)
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 52nd
(d) 53rd
Ans: (c)
13. The provision of amending the Constitutional Provision is given in :
(a) Part XIX Article 356
(b) Part XX Article 356
(c) Part XX Article 368
(d) Part XIX Article 368
Ans: (c)
14. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament
(a) does not need the assent of the President
(b) does need the assent of the President
(c) does not need the assent of the President if passed by ratification of States
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
15. Who is entitled to initiate a Bill for Constitutional Amendments?
(a) State Legislative Assemblies
(b) Lok Sabha only
(c) Either House of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha only
Ans: (c)
16. Which of the following are correct regarding the Parliament’s power of amendment?
1. It can amend the Fundamental Rights.
2. It can amend the basic structure of the Constitution.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
17. Indian Constitution was amended for the first time in :
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1953
Ans: (b)
18. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was: (UDC 1993)
(a) added by the first Amendment
(b) added by the 24th Amendment
(c) added by the 42nd Amendment
(d) a part of the original Constitution
Ans: (a)
19. The Amendment regarding the formation of a new State by separating territory from any other State must be passed by:
(a) only Lok Sabha
(b) only Rajya Sabha
(c) both the Houses of Parliament
(d) both the Houses of Parliament and before that the opinion of that State is to be ascertained by the President
Ans: (d)
20. Of all the Amendments in the Indian Constitution, the most Comprehensive and Controversial Amendment was:
(a) 42nd
(b) 43rd
(c) 44th
(d) 45th
Ans: (a)
21. By which Amendment, the power to amend the Constitution was specifically conferred upon the Parliament? (NDA 1992)
(a) 56th
(b) 52nd
(c) 42nd
(d) 24th
Ans: (d)
22. How many States are required to ratify certain Amendments to the Constitution?
(a) Not less than half the number
(b) Three-fourths of the number
(c) At least 10 States
(d) All States in some cases
Ans: (a)
23. Which of these Amendments and their subject matter is/are incorrectly matched?
1. 26th Amendment – Abolition of titles and privileges of former rules of princely states
2. 21st Amendment – Curtailed the right to property
3. 51st Amendment – Curbed political defections
4. 61st Amendment – Reduced voting age.
(a) I, II and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) II and III
Ans: (d)
24. Match the following:
A. Fifty-eighth Amendment 1. Delhi to be called as National Capital Territory of Delhi
B. Sixty-first Amendment 2. Reduced voting age from 21 years to 18 years
C. Sixty-ninth Amendment 3. An authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi
D. Seventy-first Amendment 4. Included Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages in the Eighth Schedule
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans: (a)
25. What was the decision of the Supreme Court in Keshavanand Bharati case?
(a) Parliament is supreme in the matters of legislation
(b) In matters relating to compulsory acquisition of private property the court had the ultimate powers of determining what is public purpose under Article 31
(c) The power under Article 368 to amend the Constitution cannot be so exercised as to alter the basic structure or the essential features of the Constitution
(d) The Supreme Court has full authority to pronounce on the Constitutional Validity of any State law
Ans: (c)
26. In the Minerva Mills batch of cases the Supreme Court has further reaffirmed its decision in :
(a) Golakh Nath Case
(b) Keshavanand Bharati case
(c) Sajjan Singh Case
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
27. The decision of the Supreme Court in the Golakh Nath Case was that:
(a) Judiciary is independent of Parliament
(b) Fundamental Rights could not be amended or abridged
(c) the Constitution is supreme
(d) the basic structure of the Constitution should not be changed
Ans: (b)
28. Put in chronological order the following Amendments to the Constitution.
1. Addition of Ninth Schedule to the Constitution.
2. Abolition of privy purses and privileges of former princes.
3. Insertion of XI Schedule
4. Removal of Right to Property from Constitutional Rights.
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) II, I, IV, III
(c) I, II, IV, III
(d) IV, I, II, III
Ans: (c)
29. Which of the following provisions can be amended by simple majority?
(a) Creation of new States
(b) Creation or abolition of upper houses in State Legislatures
(c) Reconstitution of existing States
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
30. If the procedure for the election of the President of India is sought to be modified, which of the following conditions are required?
1. An Amendment of the Constitution passed by simple majority in Lok Sabha
2. A referendum
3. An Amendment of the Constitution passed by two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament.
4. Ratification of the legislatures of at least half the number of States.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) None of the above, as the election procedure cannot be changed
Ans: (c)
31. As per the Anti-Defection Law, the final authority to decide on a member’s disqualification from the House is :
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) Speaker of the House
(d) Council of Ministers
Ans: (c)
32. Match the following:
Amendment Provision
A. 42nd 1. Panchayati Raj
B. 44th 2. Fundamental Duties
C. 61st 3. Voting age lowered from 21 years to 18 years
D. 73rd 4. Right to Property abolished
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans: (b)
33. When the name of the State is changed or a new State is created, the Constitution of India is required to be amended by Parliament by a :
(a) simple majority as under Articles 107 and 108
(b) majority of total numbers of both the Houses under Article 368
(c) special majority under Article 368
(d) special majority after obtaining opinion of the concerned State under Article 3 of the Constitution
Ans: (a)
34. An Amendment of the Bill relating to the manner and mode of election of the President:
(a) does not need the assent of the President
(b) does need the assent of the President
(c) does not need the assent of the President if passed by ratification of the States
(d) on approval of the Bill by the cabinet, assent of the President may be dispensed with
Ans: (d)
35. Which of the following statements regarding 74th Amendment of the Constitution are correct?
1. It provides for the insertion of a new schedule to the Constitution.
2. It restructures the working of the municipalities.
3. It provides for the reservation of seats for women and scheduled castes in the municipalities.
(a) A only
(b) A and C
(c) A and B
(d) A, B and C
Ans: (d)
36. The Amendment procedure laid down in Indian Constitution is on the pattern of:
(a) Constitution of Canada
(b) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Constitution of South Africa
(d) Constitution of USA
Ans: (a)
37. National Capital Territory of Delhi has been constituted by:
(a) 71st Amendment
(b) 69th Amendment
(c) ordinance promulgated by the President
(d) ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant Governor
Ans: (b)
38. A merger will not invite action under the Anti-Defection Act if ____ members of a political party decide to join another political party.
(a) one-third
(b) two-thirds
(c) half
(d) one-fourth
Ans: (b)
39. Which Amendment provided for an authoritative version of the Constitution in Hindi?
(a) 56th
(b) 58th
(c) 60th
(d) 61st
Ans: (b)
40. Which of the following is true about C. Rajgopalachari?
(a) He was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha after independence
(b) He was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Body of India
(c) He was the first and last Indian Governor General of India after independence
(d) He was the Governor of Tamil Nadu
Ans: (c)
41. What is the document published by the government to apprise the public on any issue? (Central Excise 1990)
(a) Gazette
(b) Report of Public Accounts Committee
(c) White Paper
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
42. The expression ‘Creamy layer’ used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to: (RRB 1994)
(a) those sections of the society which pay income tax
(b) those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are developed
(c) those sections of the society that are considered advanced according to the Karpuri Thakur formula
(d) all sections of the upper castes of the society
Ans: (b)
43. Extradiction means:
(a) forcing a foreign national to leave the country
(b) forcing a citizen of the country to leave the country
(c) delivering a foreign national for the trial of offences
(d) blocking the trade of other countries with a particular country
Ans: (c)
44. Civil servants are not permitted to become: (Delhi Police 1994)
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Vice-Chancellors of Universities
(c) Heads of Commissions of Enquiry
(d) Members of Parliament
Ans: (d)
45. Next to Hindi, language spoken by the largest number of people in the Indian subcontinent is: (CDS 1993)
(a) Bengali
(b) Tamil
(c) Telugu
(d) Marathi
Ans: (a)
46. Which of the following statements regarding literacy in India are correct ?
1. A person who can only read but cannot write is not defined literate.
2. Children below 5 years of age are not taken into consideration even if they are able to read and write.
3. For the purpose of census, a person is deemed literate if he or she can read and write with understanding in any of the 22 languages mentioned in the Constitution
4. The fact that a district has attained hundred percent literacy does not mean that the entire population in the district is literate.
(a) I, III and IV
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II and IV
Ans: (b)
47. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence? (IAS 2004)
(a) Attorney General of India – Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Attorney General of India – Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of’ India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court – Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Members of Parliament
Ans: (b)
48. The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater emphasis on; (CDS 2004)
(a) Gram Sabha
(b) Mandal Panchayat
(c) Taluk Panchayat Samiti
(d) Zila Parishad
Ans: (b)
49. By which Amendment Act of the Constituttion of India were the Directive Principles of the State Policy given precedence over the Fundamental Rights wherever they come into conflict? (CDS 200S)
(a) 40th
(b) 42nd
(c) 44th
(d) 46th
Ans: (b)
50. Consider the following:
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies.
2. Motor accident cases,
3. Pension cases.
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held? (IAS 2005)
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
51. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition Board work? (IAS 2005)
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Ans: (a)
52. The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of: (IAS 2004)
(a) Culture
(b) Tourism
(c) Science and Technology
(d) Human Resource Development
Ans: (a)
53. In which one of the following Ministries, the census organisation has been functioning on a permanent footing since 1961? (CDS 2009)
(a) Health and Family Welfare
(b) Home Affairs
(c) Social Justice and Empowerment
(d) Human Resource Development
Ans: (b)
54. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India, thereby  raising their number to 22 ? (IAS 2008)
(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
Ans: (c)
55. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the following Union Ministries? (IAS 2008)
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways
(d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
Ans: (b)
56. For which one of the following reforms was a Commission set up under the Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India? (IAS 2008)
(a) Police Reforms
(b) Tax Reforms
(c) Reforms in Technical Education
(d) Administrative Reforms
Ans: (d)
57. Which was the Capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate State in the year 1953? (IAS 2008)
(a) Guntur
(b) Kurnool
(c) Nellore
(d) Warangal
Ans: (b)
58. Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel Mission (as Nodal Ministry)? (IAS 2008)
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Ans: (d)
59. Consider the following statements with reference to the linguistic reorganization of States in independent India:
1. The separate State of Andhra for the Telugu people came into existence in 1953.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly in favour of the movement for linguistic reorganisation of States that came in the wake of the success of the Andhra movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2008)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
60. The Constituent Assembly appointed the Linguistic Provinces Commission in the year 1948 to enquire into the desirability of linguistic provinces. Who among the following was the Head of that Commission? (IAS 2008)
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Justice S.K. Dhar
(c) Justice Fazl AIi
(d) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
Ans: (b)
61. Consider the following statements:
1. The Ministries/Departments of the Union Government are created by the Prime Minister.
2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2008)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
62. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes under which one of the following Ministries? (CDS 2008)
(a) Ministry of Culture
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Information and Broad casting
Ans: (b)
63. In which one of the following years did the Right to Information Act come into force? (CDS 2008)
(a) 2003
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2006
Ans: (c)
64. Holding a ‘Bandh’ was declared illegal for the first time in India by which one of the following High Courts? (CDS 2008)
(a) Rajasthan High Court
(b) Gujarat High Court
(c) Kerala High Court
(d) Maharashtra High Court
Ans: (c)
65. Who among the following was the Finance Minister of India in the Interim Government during 1946-1947 ? (CDS 2008)
(a) R.K. Shanrnukharn Chetty
(b) John Mathai
(c) Liaquat Ali Khan
(d) Chintamanrao Deshmukh
Ans: (a)
66. The quarantine regulation for preventing entry of diseased plants into the country is done by which one of the following? (CDS 2008)
(a) National Botanical Research Institute
(b) Botanical Survey of India
(c) National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources
(d) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
Ans: (c)
67. The National River Conservation Directorate is under: (Asstt Comm 2008)
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(c) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(d) Ministry of Water Resources
Ans: (b)
68. By Convention, who of the following is the Chairman of Press Council of India? (Asstt Comm 2008)
(a) An eminent journalist of India
(b) A senior Civil Services Officer
(c) A retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India
(d) The Union Minister of Information arid Broadcasting
Ans: (c)
69. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively? (IAS 2007)
(a) 91st
(b) 93rd
(c) 95th
(d) 97th
Ans: (a)
70. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the legislation passed by the Parliament is subject to judicial review.
2. The Constitution of India lays down the mechanism for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2007)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
71. Consider the following statements:
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2006)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
72. Consider the following statements in respect of protection of copyright in India
I. Copyright is a legal right given to creators of literacy, dramatic, musical and artistic works and produces of cinematograph films and sound recordings.
II. Copyright protects only the expression and not the ideas. There is no copyright in an idea.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2009)
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II
Ans: (c)
73. Which one among the following commissions was set up in pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India? (IAS 2006)
(a) University Grants Commission
(b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
Ans: (c)
74. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (IAS 2006)
(a) States Reorganisation Act : Andhra Pradesh
(b) Treaty of Yandabu: Asom
(c) State of Bilaspur :Himachal Pradesh
(d) Year 1966: Gujarat becomes a State
Ans: (d)
75. Consider the following statements:
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age group by the State was made a Fundamental Right by the 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?([IAS 2006)
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)
76. Which of the following statements is/are not violative of the principle of federalism? (NDA 2010)
1. The President of India takes over administration of provinces under the emergency
2. The Parliament of India has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent list of State list.
3. The distribution of powers between the Union and provinces is done through three different lists enumerated in the Constitution of India.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)
77. Which one of the following can be provided under RTI Act, 2005? (CDS 2010)
(a) Information leading to incitement of an offense
(b) Information leading to disclosure that may constitute contempt of court
(c) Conditional disclosure relating to information on intellectual property
(d) Information relating to Cabinet Papers recording deliberations of Council of Ministers
Ans: (c)
78. According to the Constitution (Fifty Second Amendment) Act 1985asamended in 2003, a legislator attracts disqualification under the Tenth Schedule if
1. he voluntarily gives up the membership of the party on whose ticket he was elected.
2. he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party.
3. as a result of split, less than one third of the members formed a new group or party in the house.
4. a member who has been elected as an independent member joins any political party.
Select the correct answer using the code given below (CDS 2009)
(a) II and III
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I and III
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (d)
79. The National Commission for Women was created by (CDS 2012)
(a) an amendment in the Constitution of India
(b) a decision of the Union Cabinet
(c) an Act passed by the Parliament
(d) an order of the President of India
Ans: (c)
80. Which one of the following States has granted Sanskrit language the status of the second official language of the State? (UP PCS 2011)
(a) Bihar
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Ans: (d)
81. Which of the following condition/conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India?
1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise.
2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or not are eligible to vote
3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up form 6-A with electoral registration office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (UP PCS 2011)
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
82. There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing in a democratic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them? (CDS 2011)
(a) It reduces conflict among different communities
(b) Majority community does not impose its will on others
(c) Since all are affected by the policies of the government, they should be consulted in the governance of the country
(d) It speeds up the decision making process and improves the chances of unity of the country
Ans: (b)
83. The song ‘Jana-Gana-Mana’ composed by Rabindra Nath Tagore was first published in January 1912 under the title of (CPO SI 2010)
(a) Jay He
(b) Rashtra Jagriti
(c) Bharat Vidhata
(d) Matribhoomi
Ans: (c)
84. Who is the head of the National Defence Committee? (BPSC 2011)
(a) Home Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Vice-President
Ans: (a)
85. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages is it entitled to ?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CSAT 2011)
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
86. Consider the following events:
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka
4. Meghalaya and Tripura
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above? (IAS 2004)
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3
(b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1
(d) 4, 1, 2, 3
Ans: (a)
87. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Emergency due to war declared for the first time – 1. October1962
(b) Lok Sabha held its first sitting – 2. May 1952
(c) Sarkaria Commission set up – 3. June 1983
(d) National Commission for Minorities set up – 4. April 1980
Ans: (d)
88. Match the following:
A. 1971 1. Fifth general elections
B. 1978 2. Introduction of Panchayati Raj System
C. 1952 3. Formation of National Development Council
D. 1959 4. Right to property removed from Article 19
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
89. Match the following:
A. 1950 1. First Rajya Sabha Constituted
B. 1952 2. Contingency Fund of India Act
C. 1957 3. First Finance Commission constituted
D. 1951 4. Jammu and Kashmir adopted its separate Constitution
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (d)
90. Which one of the following is not an independent Department under the Government of India? (CDS 2009)
(a) Department of Atomic Energy
(b) Department of Bio-Technology
(c) Department of space
(d) Planning Commission
Ans: (a)
91. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) 1960- Third general elections in India
(b) 1958-Bombay bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat
(c) 1966-lndira Gandhi became Prime Minister
(d) 1970-Nationalisation of banks
Ans: (c)
92. Why is the year 1952 important in Indian History ?
(a) States Reorganisation Act was passed
(b) Haryana State was split
(c) First official census in India was held
(d) First general elections to the Lok Sabha were held
Ans: (d)
93. The Sarkaria Commission has:
I. Favoured the implementation of the three-language formula.
II. Turned down the/demand for the abolition of the office of the Governor.
III. Favoured liberal use of Article 356 of the Constitution in the interest of the country’s integrity.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) I, II and III
Ans: (c)
94. Which one of the following is/are all-India services?
I. Indian Administrative Service
II. Indian Foreign Service
III. Indian Police Service
IV. Indian Defence Service
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: (b)
95. The Constitution envisages:
(a) two types of civil services-administrative and police
(b) two types of civil services-Indian and Provincial
(c) three types of civil services-all- India, Central and regional
(d) three types of civil services-all- India, Central and State
Ans: (d)
96. An aggrieved public servant of the Union can challenge the decisions of the Administrative Tribunal:
(a) before the Supreme Court
(b) before the High Court
(c) before both (a) and (b)
(d) before no court of law
Ans: (a)
97. Match the following:
Prominent Functionaries Minimum Age for Appointment
A. Member of Rajya Sabha 1. No minimum age
B. Member of Legislative Assembly 2. 21 years
C. High Court Judge 3. 25 years
D. Member of Panchayat 4. 30 years
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans: (d)
98. Match the following:
Prominent Functionaries Term of Office
A. Supreme Court Judge 1. Till 65 years of age
B. High Court Judge 2. Till 62 years of age
C. Comptroller and Auditor General of India 3. 6 years or age of 65 whichever is less
D. Governor 4. 5 years
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (a)
99. Match the following:
A. Madhu Limayi 1. A former Vice-President
B. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah 2. The first Speaker of the Lok Sabha
C. B.D. Jatti 3. A veteran parliamentarian of yester years
D. Mavlankar 4. Author of a famous book on the history of Indian
National Congress
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (d)
100. Match the following ([IFS 1993)
A. MP 1. Elected by an Electoral College
B. President 2. Elected by the Parliament
C. Vice-President 3. Elected by the Lok Sabha
D. Speaker 4. Elected by adult voting
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (d)
101. Match the following:
A. Biggest democracy 1. USA
B. Rigid Constitution providing for dual citizenship 2. India
C. Flexible Constitution providing for nonrepublican democracy 3. UK
A B C
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 2 1 3
(c) 1 3 2
(d) 3 1 2
Ans: (b)
102. In the Government of India, under which Ministry is the National River Conservation Directorate? (IAS 2009)
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(c) Ministry of Environment and Forests
(d) Ministry of Water Resources
Ans: (c)
103. Which of the following is/are instance(s) of violation of human rights?
1. A person was detained by the security forces while going for casting vote in Parliamentary Election.
2. A civilian was killed by the army while undertaking combing operation. (NDA 2010)

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
104. The President of USA is elected after every:
(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 6 years
Ans: (b)
105. Territorial waters of India extends upto how many nautical miles? (IFS 1989)
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 22
Ans: (b)
106. Which is the highest ranking post among the following?
(a) Chief of the Air Staff
(b) Judge of the Supreme Court
(c) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)
107. The State having the largest population of scheduled castes is :
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Bihar
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (d)
108. Which of the following countries has the briefest Constitution in the world?
(a) France
(b) USA
(c) UK
(d) Canada
Ans: (b)
109. Who was made the Home Minister when Jawaharlal Nehru formed the Interim Government in 1946 ? (Asstt Grade 1995)
(a) Baldev Singh
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Mohd. Ali Jinnah
(d) Liaqat Ali Khan
Ans: (b)
110. In which of the following States, no tribe has been declared as ‘Scheduled’ by the President? (IFS 1993)
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Haryana
(d) Bihar
Ans: (c)

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published.